General Class License Exam Questions
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Subelement G0 Electrical and RF Safety
Group G0A RF safety principles, rules and guidelines; routine station evaluation
G0A01 What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
G0A02 Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
G0A03 [97.13(c)(1)] How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
G0A04 What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
G0A05 What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
G0A06 What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
G0A07 What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
G0A08 Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?
G0A09 What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
G0A10 What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
G0A11 What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
G0A12 What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
Group G0B Safety in the ham shack; electrical shock and treatment, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, wiring, antenna and tower safety
G0B01 Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?
G0B02 What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
G0B03 Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
G0B04 Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
G0B05 Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
G0B06 Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
G0B07 Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?
G0B08 What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
G0B09 Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
G0B10 Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
G0B11 Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?
G0B12 What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
G0B13 What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
G0B14 Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
G0B15 Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
Subelement G1 Commission's Rules
- G1A - General Class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
- G1B - Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
- G1C - Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards
- G1D - Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification
- G1E - Control categories; repeater regulations; harmful interference; third party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
Group G1A General Class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
G1A01 [97.301(d)] On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
G1A02 [97.305] On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
G1A03 [97.305] On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
G1A04 [97.303 (h)] Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
G1A05 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?
G1A06 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
G1A07 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?
G1A08 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?
G1A09 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?
G1A10 [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
G1A11 [97.301] When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
G1A12 [97.303] Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
G1A13 [97.303(h)(2)(j)] What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
G1A14 [97.301(d)] In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?
Group G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
G1B01 [97.15(a)] What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
G1B02 [97.203(b)] With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
G1B03 [97.3(a)(9)] Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
G1B04 [97.113(b)] Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
G1B05 [97.113(c)] When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
G1B06 [97.113(a)(4) and 97.207(f)] When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
G1B07 [97.113(a)(4)] What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
G1B08 [97.101(a)] When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
G1B09 [97.113(a)(3)] When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
G1B10 [97.203(c)] What is the power limit for beacon stations?
G1B11 [97.101(a)] How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
G1B12 [97.101(a)] Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
Group G1C Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards
G1C01 [97.313(c)(1)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
G1C02 [97.313(a),(b)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
G1C03 [97.303(h)(1)] What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
G1C04 [97.313(a)] Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?
G1C05 [97.313(c)(2)] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
G1C06 [97.313] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
G1C07 [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?
G1C08 [97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
G1C09 [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?
G1C10 [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
G1C11 [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
Group G1D Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification
G1D01 [97.501, 97.505(a)] Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
G1D02 [97.509(b)(3)(i)] What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
G1D03 [97.9(b)] On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
G1D04 [97.509(3)(i)(c)] Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?
G1D05 [97.509(b)(3)(i)] Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?
G1D06 [97.119(f)(2)] When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?
G1D07 [97.509(b)(1)] Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
G1D08 [97.509(b)(3)] Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
G1D09 [97.9(b)] How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
G1D10 [97.509(b)(2)] What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
G1D11 If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?
Group G1E Control categories; repeater regulations; harmful interference; third party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
G1E01 [97.115(b)(2)] Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
G1E02 [97.205(b)] When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
G1E03 [97.221] What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
G1E04 [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)] Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
G1E05 [97.115(a)(2),97.117] What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
G1E06 [97.205(c)] Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
G1E07 [97.115(a)(2)] With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
G1E08 [97.115(a)(b)] Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?
G1E09 [97.119(b)(2)] What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?
G1E10 [97.205(b)] Question Removed by QPC What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
G1E11 [97.221] Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?
G1E12 [97.115] Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
G1E13 [97.221, 97.305] On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
Subelement G2 Operating Procedures
- G2A - Phone operating procedures; USB/LSB conventions; procedural signals; breaking into a contact; VOX operation
- G2B - Operating courtesy; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications
- G2C - CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations; full break in
- G2D - Amateur Auxiliary; minimizing interference; HF operations
- G2E - Digital operating; procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations
Group G2A Phone operating procedures; USB/LSB conventions; procedural signals; breaking into a contact; VOX operation
G2A01 Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
G2A02 Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?
G2A03 Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
G2A04 Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?
G2A05 Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
G2A06 Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
G2A07 Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?
G2A08 Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?
G2A09 Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?
G2A10 Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?
G2A11 What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?
Group G2B Operating courtesy; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications
G2B01 Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?
G2B02 What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
G2B03 If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
G2B04 When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
G2B05 What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
G2B06 What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
G2B07 Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
G2B08 What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?
G2B09 [97.407(a)] Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
G2B10 [97.407(b)] When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
G2B11 [97.405] What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
G2B12 [97.405(b)] When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
Group G2C CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations; full break in
G2C01 Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
G2C02 What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
G2C03 What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
G2C04 What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
G2C05 What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
G2C06 What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
G2C07 When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?
G2C08 What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
G2C09 What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
G2C10 What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?
G2C11 What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?
Group G2D Amateur Auxiliary; minimizing interference; HF operations
G2D01 What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
G2D02 Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?
G2D03 What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
G2D04 Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
G2D05 [97.111(a)(1)] When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
G2D06 How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?
G2D07 [97.303(i)] Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
G2D08 What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?
G2D09 What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
G2D10 What is QRP operation?
G2D11 Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
Group G2E Digital operating; procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations
G2E01 Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
G2E02 How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
G2E03 What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?
G2E04 What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?
G2E05 What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
G2E06 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
G2E07 What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?
G2E08 In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
G2E09 (C) How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
G2E10 Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
G2E11 What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?
G2E12 Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
G2E13 Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?
G2E14 What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
Subelement G3 Radio Wave Propagation
Group G3A Sunspots and solar radiation; ionospheric disturbances; propagation forecasting and indices
G3A01 What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?
G3A02 What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
G3A03 Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
G3A04 Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
G3A05 What is the solar flux index?
G3A06 What is a geomagnetic storm?
G3A07 At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
G3A08 Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?
G3A09 What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?
G3A10 What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?
G3A11 Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
G3A12 What does the K-index indicate?
G3A13 What does the A-index indicate?
G3A14 How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
G3A15 How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
G3A16 What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
Group G3B Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; propagation
G3B01 How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
G3B02 Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
G3B03 Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
G3B04 What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
G3B05 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?
G3B06 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
G3B07 What does LUF stand for?
G3B08 What does MUF stand for?
G3B09 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
G3B10 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
G3B11 What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
G3B12 What factor or factors affect the MUF?
Group G3C Ionospheric layers; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; Near-Vertical Incidence Skywave
G3C01 Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?
G3C02 Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
G3C03 Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
G3C04 What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
G3C05 Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
G3C06 What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
G3C07 What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
G3C08 Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
G3C09 What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
G3C10 Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
G3C11 Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
G3C12 Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
G3C13 What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?
Subelement G4 Amateur Radio Practices
Group G4A Station operation and setup
G4A01 What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
G4A02 What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
G4A03 What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
G4A04 What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
G4A05 What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?
G4A06 What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?
G4A07 What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
G4A08 What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
G4A09 Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
G4A10 What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
G4A11 Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
G4A12 Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
G4A13 What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
G4A14 What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
G4A15 Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?
Group G4B Test and monitoring equipment; two-tone test
G4B01 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
G4B02 Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
G4B03 Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
G4B04 What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
G4B05 Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
G4B06 What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
G4B07 What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
G4B08 Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
G4B09 Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
G4B10 Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
G4B11 Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
G4B12 What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
G4B13 What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
G4B14 What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
G4B15 What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
Group G4C Interference with consumer electronics; grounding; DSP
G4C01 Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?
G4C02 Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
G4C03 What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
G4C04 What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
G4C05 What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
G4C06 What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
G4C07 What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
G4C08 Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
G4C09 How can a ground loop be avoided?
G4C10 What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
G4C11 Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?
G4C12 Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
G4C13 Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
Group G4D Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
G4D01 What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
G4D02 Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
G4D03 Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
G4D04 What does an S meter measure?
G4D05 How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
G4D06 Where is an S meter found?
G4D07 How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
G4D08 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
G4D09 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
G4D10 How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
G4D11 How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
Group G4E HF mobile radio installations; emergency and battery powered operation
G4E01 What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
G4E02 What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?
G4E03 Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?
G4E04 Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?
G4E05 Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?
G4E06 What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
G4E07 Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
G4E08 What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
G4E09 What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
G4E10 What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
G4E11 Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
Subelement G5 Electrical Principles
Group G5A Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching
G5A01 What is impedance?
G5A02 What is reactance?
G5A03 Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
G5A04 Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
G5A05 How does an inductor react to AC?
G5A06 How does a capacitor react to AC?
G5A07 What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?
G5A08 Why is impedance matching important?
G5A09 What unit is used to measure reactance?
G5A10 What unit is used to measure impedance?
G5A11 Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
G5A12 What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
G5A13 Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
Group G5B The Decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
G5B01 What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?
G5B02 How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?
G5B03 How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
G5B04 How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
G5B05 How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?
G5B06 What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
G5B07 What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
G5B08 Question Removed by QPC What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
G5B09 What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
G5B10 What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
G5B11 What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
G5B12 What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
G5B13 What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
G5B14 What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
Group G5C Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
G5C01 What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
G5C02 What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?
G5C03 Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
G5C04 What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
G5C05 If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
G5C06 What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
G5C07 What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
G5C08 What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
G5C09 What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
G5C10 What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
G5C11 What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
G5C12 What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
G5C13 Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
G5C14 Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
G5C15 What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?
G5C16 Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?
G5C17 What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?
G5C18 What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
Subelement G6 Circuit Components
Group G6A Resistors; Capacitors; Inductors; Rectifiers; solid state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
G6A01 What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
G6A02 What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
G6A03 What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
G6A04 When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
G6A05 What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
G6A06 Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?
G6A07 What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
G6A08 Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
G6A09 Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
G6A10 Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
G6A11 Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
G6A12 What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
G6A13 Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?
G6A14 Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
G6A15(C) Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
G6A16 What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
G6A17 Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
G6A18 What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
G6A19 How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?
Group G6B Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microprocessors; memory; I/O devices; microwave ICs (MMICs); display device
G6B01 Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
G6B02 What is meant by the term MMIC?
G6B03 Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
G6B04 What is meant by the term ROM?
G6B05 What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?
G6B06 What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
G6B07 Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?
G6B08 How is an LED biased when emitting light?
G6B09 Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
G6B10 What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
G6B11 What is a microprocessor?
G6B12 Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
G6B13 Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
G6B14 Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
G6B15 What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
G6B16 Which of the following describes a type N connector?
G6B17 What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
G6B18 What is a type SMA connector?
Subelement G7 Practical Circuits
Group G7A Power supplies; and schematic symbols
G7A01 What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?
G7A02 Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
G7A03 What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
G7A04 What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
G7A05 What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
G7A06 What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
G7A07 What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
G7A08(C) Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
G7A09 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
G7A10 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
G7A11 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
G7A12 Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
G7A13 Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
Group G7B Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
G7B01 Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
G7B02 Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
G7B03 Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
G7B04 Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
G7B05 How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
G7B06 What is a shift register?
G7B07 What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?
G7B08 How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
G7B09 What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
G7B10 Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
G7B11 For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
G7B12 Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
G7B13 What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
G7B14 Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
Group G7C Receivers and transmitters; filters, oscillators
G7C01 Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
G7C02 Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
G7C03 What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
G7C04 What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
G7C05 Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
G7C06 What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
G7C07 What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
G7C08 What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
G7C09 Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
G7C10 How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
G7C11 What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
Subelement G8 Signals and Emissions
Group G8A Carriers and modulation; AM; FM; single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; over modulation
G8A01 How is an FSK signal generated?
G8A02 What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
G8A03 What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
G8A04 What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
G8A05 What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
G8A06 What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?
G8A07 Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
G8A08 Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
G8A09 What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
G8A10 What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?
G8A11 What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
Group G8B Frequency mixing; multiplication; bandwidths of various modes; deviation
G8B01 What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
G8B02 If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
G8B03 What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
G8B04 What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
G8B05 What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?
G8B06 What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
G8B07 What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
G8B08 Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
G8B09 Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
G8B10 What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
Group G8C Digital emission modes
G8C01 Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?
G8C02 How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
G8C03 What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
G8C04 Which of the following describes Baudot code?
G8C05 In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
G8C06 What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
G8C07 How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
G8C08 Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
G8C09 What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?
G8C10 How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
G8C11 How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
G8C12 Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
Subelement G9 Antennas and Feedlines
Group G9A Antenna feed lines; characteristic impedance, and attenuation; SWR calculation, measurement and effects; matching networks
G9A01 Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
G9A02 What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
G9A03 What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
G9A04 What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
G9A05 How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
G9A06 In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
G9A07 What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
G9A08 If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
G9A09 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?
G9A10 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?
G9A11 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?
G9A12 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
G9A13 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?
G9A14 What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
G9A15 What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
Group G9B Basic antennas
G9B01 What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?
G9B02 Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
G9B03 What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?
G9B04 What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?
G9B05 How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
G9B06 Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
G9B07 How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
G9B08 How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
G9B09 Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
G9B10 What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
G9B11 What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
G9B12 What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
Group G9C Directional antennas
G9C01 Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
G9C02 What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
G9C03 Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
G9C04 Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
G9C05 How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
G9C06 What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
G9C07 What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
G9C08 What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
G9C09 How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
G9C10 Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?
G9C11 What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
G9C12 Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?
G9C13 Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?
G9C14 How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
G9C15 Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?
G9C16 How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
G9C17 Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
G9C18 What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?
G9C19 How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
G9C20 What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?
Group G9D Specialized antennas
G9D01 What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?
G9D02 Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
G9D03 At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
G9D04 What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
G9D05 What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
G9D06 Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
G9D07 Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
G9D08 Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
G9D09 Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
G9D10 Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
G9D11 Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?