Extra Class License Exam Questions

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Subelement E0 Safety
Group E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials; grounding and bonding
E0A01 What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?
E0A02 When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do?
E0A03 Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
E0A04 When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
E0A05 What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
E0A06 Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
E0A07 How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
E0A08 What does SAR measure?
E0A09 Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
E0A10 What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?
E0A11 Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
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Subelement E1 Commission's Rules
Group E1A Safety in the ham shack; electrical shock and treatment, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, wiring, antenna and tower safety
E1A01 [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
E1A02 [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
E1A03 [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
E1A04 [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
E1A05 [97.313] What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
E1A06 [97.15] Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
E1A07 [97.303] Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?
E1A08 [97.219] If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
E1A09 [97.219] What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
E1A10 [97.11] If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
E1A11 [97.5] Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?
E1A12 [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
E1A13 [97.5] Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
E1A14 [97.303] What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
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Group E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations; national quiet zone
E1B01 [97.3] Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
E1B02 [97.13] Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
E1B03 [97.13] Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
E1B04 [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319] What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
E1B05 [97.3] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
E1B06 [97.15] Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
E1B07 [97.307] What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
E1B08 [97.121] What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
E1B09 [97.407] Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
E1B10 [97.407] What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
E1B11 [97.307] What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
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Group E1C Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications over automatically controlled stations
E1C01 [97.3] What is a remotely controlled station?
E1C02 [97.3, 97.109] What is meant by automatic control of a station?
E1C03 [97.3, 97.109] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
E1C04 What is meant by IARP?
E1C05 [97.221(c)(1),[97.115(c)] When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
E1C06 [97.109] Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
E1C07 [97.3] What is meant by local control?
E1C08 [97.213] What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
E1C09 [97.205] Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
E1C10 [97.113] What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
E1C11 [97.5] Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?
E1C12 [97.117] What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
E1C13 Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
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Group E1D Amateur satellites: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements
E1D01 [97.3] What is the definition of the term telemetry?
E1D02 [97.3] What is the amateur satellite service?
E1D03 [97.3] What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
E1D04 [97.3] What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
E1D05 [97.207] What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
E1D06 [97.207] Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
E1D07 [97.207] Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
E1D08 [97.207] Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
E1D09 [97.207] Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?
E1D10 [97.211] Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
E1D11 [97.209] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
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Group E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
E1E01 [97.509] What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
E1E02 [97.523] Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?
E1E03 [97.521] What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
E1E04 [97.509, 97.525] Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
E1E05 [97.503] What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
E1E06 [97.509] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
E1E07 [97.509] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
E1E08 [97.509] To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
E1E09 [97.509] What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
E1E10 [97.509] What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
E1E11 [97.509] What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
E1E12 [97.509] What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
E1E13 [97.509] Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?
E1E14 [97.527] For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
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Group E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; special temporary authority
E1F01 [97.305] On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
E1F02 [97.107] What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?
E1F03 [97.315] Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
E1F04 [97.3] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
E1F05 [97.303] Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
E1F06 [1.931] Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
E1F07 [97.113] When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
E1F08 [97.113] Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
E1F09 [97.311] Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
E1F10 [97.313] What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
E1F11 [97.317] Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
E1F12 [97.201] Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
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Subelement E2 Operating Procedures
Group E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations; experimental telemetry applications
E2A01 What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
E2A02 What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
E2A03 What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
E2A04 What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
E2A05 What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
E2A06 On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
E2A07 Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
E2A08 Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
E2A09 What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
E2A10 Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
E2A11 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
E2A12 What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
E2A13 What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
E2A14 What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
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Group E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
E2B01 How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
E2B02 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
E2B03 How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
E2B04 What is blanking in a video signal?
E2B05 Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
E2B06 What is vestigial sideband modulation?
E2B07 What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
E2B08 Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
E2B09 What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
E2B10 Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
E2B11 What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?
E2B12 How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
E2B13 How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
E2B14 What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
E2B15 What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
E2B16 Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
E2B17 What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
E2B18 On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
E2B19 What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
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Group E2C Operating methods: contest and DX operating; remote operation techniques; Cabrillo format; QSLing; RF network connected systems
E2C01 Which of the following is true about contest operating?
E2C02 Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in regards to HF contest operating?
E2C03 From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
E2C04 What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?
E2C05 What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
E2C06 During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
E2C07 What is the Cabrillo format?
E2C08 Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?
E2C09 What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?
E2C10 Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
E2C11 How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
E2C12 What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
E2C13 What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?
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Group E2D Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes and procedures; APRS; EME procedures, meteor scatter procedures
E2D01 Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
E2D02 Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?
E2D03 Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
E2D04 What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
E2D05 Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
E2D06 Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
E2D07 What digital protocol is used by APRS?
E2D08 What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
E2D09 Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?
E2D10 How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
E2D11 Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
E2D12 How does JT65 improve EME communications?
E2D13 What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
E2D14 What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?
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Group E2E Operating methods: operating HF digital modes
E2E01 Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
E2E02 What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
E2E03 How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?
E2E04 What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
E2E05 Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
E2E06 What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
E2E07 What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
E2E08 Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
E2E09 Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
E2E10 Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
E2E11 What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
E2E12 Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?
E2E13 Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?
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Subelement E3 Radio Wave Propagation
Group E3A Electromagnetic waves; Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; aurora propagation
E3A01 What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
E3A02 What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
E3A03 When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
E3A04 What do Hepburn maps predict?
E3A05 Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?
E3A06 Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?
E3A07 Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?
E3A08 When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
E3A09 Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor scatter communications?
E3A10 Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?
E3A11 What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?
E3A12 What is the cause of auroral activity?
E3A13 Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?
E3A14 From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?
E3A15 What is an electromagnetic wave?
E3A16 Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
E3A17 What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
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Group E3B Transequatorial propagation; long path; gray-line; multi-path; ordinary and extraordinary waves; chordal hop, sporadic E mechanisms
E3B01 What is transequatorial propagation?
E3B02 What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
E3B03 What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
E3B04 What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?
E3B05 Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
E3B06 Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
E3B07 Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
E3B08 What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
E3B09 At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?
E3B10 What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
E3B11 At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
E3B12 What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?
E3B13 Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?
E3B14 What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?
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Group E3C Radio-path horizon; less common propagation modes; propagation prediction techniques and modeling; space weather parameters and amateur radio
E3C01 What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communications?
E3C02 What is indicated by a rising A or K index?
E3C03 Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?
E3C04 What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?
E3C05 What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?
E3C06 By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E3C07 Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
E3C08 What does the space weather term G5 mean?
E3C09 How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?
E3C10 What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
E3C11 What does VOACAP software model?
E3C12 How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
E3C13 What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
E3C14 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E3C15 What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?
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Subelement E4 Amateur Practices
Group E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; RF measurements; computer aided measurements
E4A01 Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
E4A02 Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?
E4A03 Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?
E4A04 What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?
E4A05 What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?
E4A06 What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
E4A07 Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
E4A08 Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
E4A09 When using a computer’s soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?
E4A10 Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?
E4A11 Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
E4A12 Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
E4A13 How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
E4A14 What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?
E4A15 What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?
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Group E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration; S parameters; vector network analyzers
E4B01 Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
E4B02 What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
E4B03 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
E4B04 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
E4B05 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
E4B06 How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
E4B07 What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
E4B08 Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
E4B09 What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
E4B10 Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
E4B11 How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
E4B12 What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
E4B13 Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
E4B14 What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
E4B15 Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
E4B16 Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?
E4B17 What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?
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Group E4C Receiver performance characteristics, phase noise, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity; effects of SDR receiver non-linearity
E4C01 What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
E4C02 Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
E4C03 What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
E4C04 How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?
E4C05 What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
E4C06 A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
E4C07 What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
E4C08 An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?
E4C09 Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
E4C10 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
E4C11 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?
E4C12 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
E4C13 How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
E4C14 What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
E4C15 What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
E4C16 Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver’s analog-to-digital converter?
E4C17 Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver’s linearity?
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Group E4D Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselector
E4D01 What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
E4D02 Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
E4D03 How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
E4D04 Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
E4D05 What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
E4D06 What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
E4D07 Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
E4D08 What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
E4D09 What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
E4D10 What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
E4D11 Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
E4D12 What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
E4D13 Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
E4D14 Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
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Group E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers; grounding for signals
E4E01 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
E4E02 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
E4E03 Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
E4E04 How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
E4E05 How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
E4E06 What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
E4E07 How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
E4E08 What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
E4E09 What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
E4E10 What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
E4E11 Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
E4E12 What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
E4E13 What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
E4E14 What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
E4E15 Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?
E4E16 What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?
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Subelement E5 Electrical Principles
Group E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel resonance; definitions and effects of Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits
E5A01 What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
E5A02 What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
E5A03 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
E5A04 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
E5A05 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
E5A06 What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
E5A07 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
E5A08 What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
E5A09 How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
E5A10 How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
E5A11 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
E5A12 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
E5A13 What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?
E5A14 What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
E5A15 Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?
E5A16 What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
E5A17 What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?
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Group E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants; definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series RLC; phase angle of inductance vs susceptance; admittance and susceptance
E5B01 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
E5B02 What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
E5B03 What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
E5B04 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad capacitors and two 1 megohm resistors, all in parallel?
E5B05 What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
E5B06 What is susceptance?
E5B07 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
E5B08 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
E5B09 What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
E5B10 What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
E5B11 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
E5B12 What is admittance?
E5B13 What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?
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Group E5C Coordinate systems and phasors in electronics: Rectangular Coordinates; Polar Coordinates; Phasors
E5C01 Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?
E5C02 How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
E5C03 Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?
E5C04 Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?
E5C05 What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?
E5C06 What does the impedance 50–j25 represent?
E5C07 What is a vector?
E5C08 What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
E5C09 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
E5C10 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
E5C11 What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?
E5C12 If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
E5C13 What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?
E5C14 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
E5C15 Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
E5C16 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
E5C17 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
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Group E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; electrical length of conductors at UHF and microwave frequencies
E5D01 What is the result of skin effect?
E5D02 Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?
E5D03 What is microstrip?
E5D04 Why are short connections necessary at microwave frequencies?
E5D05 Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
E5D06 In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
E5D07 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?
E5D08 What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
E5D09 What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
E5D10 How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
E5D11 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
E5D12 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VAC at 4 amperes?
E5D13 How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
E5D14 What is reactive power?
E5D15 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
E5D16 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
E5D17 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?
E5D18 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?
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Subelement E6 Circuit Components
Group E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
E6A01 In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
E6A02 Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
E6A03 Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
E6A04 What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
E6A05 What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
E6A06 What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
E6A07 Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
E6A08 What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
E6A09 What is a depletion-mode FET?
E6A10 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
E6A11 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
E6A12 Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
E6A13 What do the initials CMOS stand for?
E6A14 How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
E6A15 Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shell of electrons?
E6A16 What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
E6A17 What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
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Group E6B Diodes
E6B01 What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
E6B02 What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
E6B03 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
E6B04 What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
E6B05 What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
E6B06 Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
E6B07 What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
E6B08 Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
E6B09 What is a common use for point contact diodes?
E6B10 In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
E6B11 What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
E6B12 What is one common use for PIN diodes?
E6B13 What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
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Group E6C Digital ICs: Families of digital ICs; gates; Programmable Logic Devices (PLDs)
E6C01 What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
E6C02 What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold?
E6C03 What is tri-state logic?
E6C04 What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
E6C05 What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
E6C06 Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
E6C07 What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?
E6C08 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
E6C09 What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
E6C10 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
E6C11 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
E6C12 What is BiCMOS logic?
E6C13 Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
E6C14 What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?
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Group E6D Toroidal and Solenoidal Inductors: permeability, core material, selecting, winding; transformers; Piezoelectric devices
E6D01 How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
E6D02 What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
E6D03 Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
E6D04 Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?
E6D05 What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron in an inductor?
E6D06 What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
E6D07 What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
E6D08 What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?
E6D09 What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?
E6D10 What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
E6D11 How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
E6D12 What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?
E6D13 What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?
E6D14 Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?
E6D15 What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?
E6D16 What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?
E6D17 Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?
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Group E6E Analog ICs: MMICs, CCDs, Device packages
E6E01 Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
E6E02 Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?
E6E03 Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
E6E04 Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
E6E05 Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
E6E06 What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
E6E07 Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
E6E08 How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
E6E09 Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
E6E10 What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?
E6E11 What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?
E6E12 Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
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Group E6F Optical components: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators; LCDs
E6F01 What is photoconductivity?
E6F02 What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
E6F03 What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
E6F04 What is the photovoltaic effect?
E6F05 Which describes an optical shaft encoder?
E6F06 Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
E6F07 What is a solid state relay?
E6F08 Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120VAC?
E6F09 What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
E6F10 What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
E6F11 What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
E6F12 What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
E6F13 What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?
E6F14 Which of the following is true of LCD displays?
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Subelement E7 Practical Circuits
Group E7A Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
E7A01 Which is a bi-stable circuit?
E7A02 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
E7A03 Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
E7A04 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
E7A05 Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
E7A06 What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
E7A07 What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
E7A08 What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
E7A09 What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?
E7A10 What is a truth table?
E7A11 What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?
E7A12 What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?
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Group E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers; switching-type amplifiers
E7B01 For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
E7B02 What is a Class D amplifier?
E7B03 Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
E7B04 Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
E7B05 What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
E7B06 Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even order harmonics?
E7B07 Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
E7B08 How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
E7B09 Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?
E7B10 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
E7B11 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
E7B12 What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
E7B13 In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
E7B14 Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?
E7B15 What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
E7B16 What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
E7B17 Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?
E7B18 What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
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Group E7C Filters and matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering
E7C01 How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
E7C02 Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?
E7C03 What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
E7C04 How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
E7C05 Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
E7C06 What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
E7C07 What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
E7C08 Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
E7C09 What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage?
E7C11 Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L-networks connected back-to-back with the two inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
E7C12 Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?
E7C13 What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
E7C14 Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
E7C15 What is a crystal lattice filter?
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Group E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators; Solar array charge controllers
E7D01 What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
E7D02 What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
E7D03 What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
E7D04 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
E7D05 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
E7D06 What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
E7D07 What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
E7D08 What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
E7D09 What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?
E7D10 What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
E7D11 What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regulator to maintain a constant output voltage?
E7D12 What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?
E7D13 What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series connected linear voltage regulator?
E7D14 What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregulated power supply?
E7D15 What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?
E7D16 When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
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Group E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages
E7E01 Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
E7E02 What is the function of a reactance modulator?
E7E03 How does an analog phase modulator function?
E7E04 What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
E7E05 What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
E7E06 Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
E7E07 What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
E7E08 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
E7E09 What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
E7E10 How does a diode detector function?
E7E11 Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?
E7E12 What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
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Group E7F DSP filtering and other operations; Software Defined Radio Fundamentals; DSP modulation and demodulation
E7F01 What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?
E7F02 What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
E7F03 What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?
E7F04 What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital signal processing?
E7F05 How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?
E7F06 What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?
E7F07 What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?
E7F08 What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters?
E7F09 Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?
E7F10 What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?
E7F11 What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?
E7F12 What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recover the baseband modulation information?
E7F13 What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?
E7F14 Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?
E7F15 Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?
E7F16 How might the sampling rate of an existing digital signal be adjusted by a factor of 3/4?
E7F17 What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?
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Group E7G Active filters and op-amp circuits: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers
E7G01 What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
E7G02 What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
E7G03 What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
E7G04 What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?
E7G05 How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
E7G06 Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
E7G07 What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
E7G08 How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
E7G09 What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?
E7G10 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
E7G11 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
E7G12 What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
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Group E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers; stabilizing thermal drift; microphonics; high accuracy oscillators
E7H01 What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
E7H02 Which describes a microphonic?
E7H03 How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
E7H04 How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
E7H05 How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
E7H06 Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
E7H07 How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced?
E7H08 Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?
E7H09 What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
E7H10 What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
E7H11 What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
E7H12 Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
E7H13 Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
E7H14 What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
E7H15 Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
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Subelement E8 Signals and Emissions
Group E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; Fourier analysis; Analog to digital conversion: Digital to Analog conversion
E8A01 What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?
E8A02 What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
E8A03 What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all of its harmonics?
E8A04 What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?
E8A05 What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
E8A06 What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
E8A07 What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
E8A08 Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?
E8A09 How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolution encode?
E8A10 What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?
E8A11 What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
E8A12 What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?
E8A13 Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
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Group E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; frequency and time division multiplexing; Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
E8B01 What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
E8B02 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
E8B03 What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
E8B04 What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?
E8B05 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
E8B06 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
E8B07 Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for which type of amateur communication?
E8B08 What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
E8B09 What is meant by deviation ratio?
E8B10 What describes frequency division multiplexing?
E8B11 What is digital time division multiplexing?
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Group E8C Digital signals: digital communication modes; information rate vs bandwidth; error correction
E8C01 How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
E8C02 What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?
E8C03 When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift phase precisely at the zero crossing of the RF carrier?
E8C04 What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
E8C05 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?
E8C06 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
E8C07 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
E8C08 How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
E8C09 Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or following character changes by only one bit?
E8C10 What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where symbols are transmitted as multiple bits
E8C11 What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?
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Group E8D Keying defects and overmodulation of digital signals; digital codes; spread spectrum
E8D01 Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
E8D02 What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
E8D03 How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
E8D04 What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?
E8D05 What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?
E8D06 Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?
E8D07 What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?
E8D08 What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are causing distortion in an AFSK signal?
E8D09 What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?
E8D10 What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
E8D11 What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?
E8D12 What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?
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Subelement E9 Antennas and Transmission Lines
Group E9A Basic Antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency, beamwidth; effective radiated power, polarization
E9A01 What describes an isotropic antenna?
E9A02 What antenna has no gain in any direction?
E9A03 Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
E9A04 Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
E9A05 What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
E9A06 How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
E9A07 What is meant by antenna gain?
E9A08 What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
E9A09 How is antenna efficiency calculated?
E9A10 Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
E9A11 Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?
E9A12 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
E9A13 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
E9A14 What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
E9A15 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?
E9A16 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?
E9A17 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?
E9A18 What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?
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Group E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design
E9B01 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3 dB beam-width?
E9B02 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
E9B03 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
E9B04 What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
E9B05 What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
E9B06 What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
E9B07 How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
E9B08 How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
E9B09 What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
E9B10 What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
E9B11 What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
E9B12 What is the far field of an antenna?
E9B13 What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
E9B14 What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
E9B15 What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
E9B16 How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
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Group E9C Wire and phased array antennas: rhombic antennas; effects of ground reflections; e-off angles; Practical wire antennas: Zepps, OCFD, loops
E9C01 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
E9C02 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
E9C03 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antennas spaced a 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
E9C04 What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?
E9C05 What is an OCFD antenna?
E9C06 What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
E9C07 What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
E9C08 What is a folded dipole antenna?
E9C09 What is a G5RV antenna?
E9C10 Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?
E9C11 How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
E9C12 Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?
E9C13 What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
E9C14 How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
E9C15 How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
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Group E9D Directional antennas: gain; Yagi Antennas; losses; SWR bandwidth; antenna efficiency; shortened and mobile antennas; RF Grounding
E9D01 How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
E9D02 How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
E9D03 Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
E9D04 Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
E9D05 What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
E9D06 What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
E9D07 What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
E9D08 What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
E9D09 What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?
E9D10 What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
E9D11 Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
E9D12 Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?
E9D13 What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
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Group E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; phasing lines; power dividers
E9E01 What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
E9E02 What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
E9E03 What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?
E9E04 What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
E9E05 How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
E9E06 What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system of a 3-element Yagi?
E9E07 What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
E9E08 Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
E9E09 Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
E9E10 Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100 ohm feed point impedance to a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line?
E9E11 What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
E9E12 What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
E9E13 What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?
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Group E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; velocity factor
E9F01 What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
E9F02 Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
E9F03 Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?
E9F04 What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
E9F05 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
E9F06 What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
E9F07 How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
E9F08 What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
E9F09 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
E9F10 What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
E9F11 What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
E9F12 What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
E9F13 What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
E9F14 What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
E9F15 What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
E9F16 Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
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Group E9G The Smith chart
E9G01 Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
E9G02 What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
E9G03 Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
E9G04 What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
E9G05 What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
E9G06 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
E9G07 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
E9G08 What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
E9G09 What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
E9G10 What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
E9G11 How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
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Group E9H Receiving Antennas: radio direction finding antennas; Beverage Antennas; specialized receiving antennas; longwire receiving antennas
E9H01 When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
E9H02 Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?
E9H03 This question was deleted by the Question Pool Committee on February 1, 2016
E9H04 What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
E9H05 What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
E9H06 What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
E9H07 Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
E9H08 What is the function of a sense antenna?
E9H09 Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
E9H10 How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
E9H11 What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
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